If God is Omniscient then Human is not free.

Discussion in 'Serious Discussion' started by sid_16, Apr 9, 2013.

?

Free will doesn't exist If God is omniscient.

  1. If yes, why?

    33 vote(s)
    46.5%
  2. If no, then how?

    38 vote(s)
    53.5%
  1. gorski

    gorski MDL Guru

    Oct 21, 2009
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    You have my arguments here but you said you're not interested, ergo what would be the point?
     
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  2. R29k

    R29k MDL GLaDOS

    Feb 13, 2011
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  3. parafer

    parafer MDL Junior Member

    Dec 20, 2016
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    The whole God-and-Universe semantic, I think, makes it hard to formulate an answer that isn't equally ambivalent as the question.

    If God is seen as the Ineffable or one Substance, then what we would consider the universe or the phenomenal/manifest would rather be an outflow of God, and indeed God Him/Her/Itself. As such, any concept such as free or bound pertains to the one substance only, and the phenomenal or manifest being of relative nature only (and therefore has an ephemeral quality). Free and bound in this sense are relative concepts or realities, too. And if the apparent God-and-man division is entertained, then what is referred to as "God" by "man" must be the innermost or nucleus of that man. Meaning, that certain life-forms or relative constructs could be where the root-consciousness or being referred to as "God" would manifest. Aka the mystical or transcendental or psychedelic experience. Since what has come down in transcendental traditions seems to indicate that the state of man wherein one is not aware of his nucleus, is, by definition, a bound (not a free) state, leads to the conclusion that what people mostly refer to as "free will" is actually a very whimsical and conditioned state of being. So perhaps the perspective should be that one can't know true freedom unless freed from conditioning; i.e., waking up out of the state of relativity or awareness of the one substance/state that informs all form/relativity.

    The phrasing was interesting: "If God is omniscient, there can be no free will of man." So, omniscience (knowing all) precludes free will of man is the posit. Perhaps omniscience is the state of freedom. And perhaps we/man should not conclude that he cannot attain this freedom and/or omniscience. If man cannot be omniscient, could he be free? Because not knowing what conditions you, how could you be free?

    Don't attack the philosophizing, because I didn't open this can of worms :D